01. The Constitution describes India as a
(a) Federation of States (b) Union of States (c) Unitary State (d) Confederation of States
02. Which is considered as the key to the Indian Constitution?
(a) Preamble (b) Articles (c) Schedule (d) Fundamental Rights
03. The word ‘State’ is defined under Article of the Constitution of India?
(a) Article 12 (b) Article 13 (c) Article 14 (d) Article 15
04. The Head of State in India is
(a) Plural executive (b) Single executive (c) Real executive (d) Titular executive
05. Indian Constitution draws its authority from
(b) The Parliament (a) The Constitution itself (c) The people of India (d) Judicial decisions
06. Who is the source of legal authority of India?
(a) Parliament of India (b) President of India (c) Constitution of India (d) None of the above
07. Who is the custodian of the Fundamental Rights enshrined in the Indian Constitution?
(a) President (b) Parliament (c) Supreme Court (d) All of these
08. Right to Primary Education under Constitution of India falls under
(a) Civil Rights (b) Fundamental Rights
(c) Directive Principles of State Policy (d) Preamble of constitution
09. Right to Property was removed from the list of fundamental rights from the Constitution of India during the tenure of
(a) Rajiv Gandhi (b) Morarji Desai (c) Charan Singh (d) Indira Gandhi
10. The Fundamental Rights are available against the –
(a) Judiciary (b) Executive (c) Legislature (d) State
11. Part III of the Indian Constitution deals with:
(a) Fundamental Duties (b) Citizenship (c) Fundamental Rights (d) DPSP
12. Part IV A of the Indian Constitution deals with
(a) Directive principles of State policy (b) Fundamental Rights
(c) Fundamental Duties (d) Citizenship
13. The part of constitution which contains the Directive Principles of State policy?
(a) Part III (b) Part IV-A (c) Part IV (d) Part II
14. Which of the following is known as the ‘Magnacarta of India’?
(a) Fundamental Duties (b) Fundamental Right (c) Preamble (d )Amendment
15. Which is known as the ‘keystone of the constitution’
(a) Preamble (b) Articles (c) Fundamental Duties (d) Fundamental Right
16. Which of the following aims to create social and economic democracy in India?
(a) Fundamental Rights (b) Fundamental duties (c) Citizenship (d) Directive Principles
17.
How many duties are provided under Part IV-A of the constitution?
(a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 12 (d) 8
18. Right to Education under Article 21A was added in the Constitution by the
(a) Constitution 83rd Amendment Act, 2000 (b) Constitution 84th Amendment Act, 2001 (c ) Constitution 85th Amendment Act, 2001 (d) Constitution 86th Amendment Act, 2002
19. The chairman of Fundamental Rights subcommittee of the constituent Assembly was
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (c) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru (d) J.B. Kripalani
20. The Indian Government is called parliamentary because
(a) President is the head of the Executive
(b) The Executive is responsible to the legislature
(c) Lok Sabha are directly elected by the people
(d) The President is bound by the Prime Minister and council of ministers
21. Who can impose reasonable restrictions on the freedoms contained in Article 19 of the Constitution?
(a) Only High Court (b) Only the dejure sovereign (c) Only Parliament (d) Only Supreme Court
22. The council of Ministers in India remains in office as long as it enjoys the confidence of the
(a) Parliament (b) President (c) House of the people (d) Armed Forces
23. Parliament of India consists of
(a) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Union Ministry (b) President, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(c) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha (d) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Speaker and Deputy Speaker
24. Who decides whether a Member of Parliament is subject to any disqualification?
(a) Speaker (b) President (c) Prime Minister (d) Lok Sabha Speaker
25. Regarding No-confidence Motion
(a) No grounds’ have to be set out for the motion
(b) It is expressed against an individual minister or council of ministers
(c) It is always brought against the Prime Minister
(d) Not less than 100 members have to support it for the speaker to grant leave for its introduction
26. Every money bill introduced in the State Legislature is with the prior consent of the
(a) Speaker (b) Chief Minister (c) Governor (d) President
27. Whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not is certified by the and his decision is conclusive.
(a) Chairman of Rajya Sabha (b) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) President (d) Chairman of Public Accounts Committee’
28. As per constitutional requirement the parliament of India shall meet at least
(a) Once a year (b) Twice a year (c) Thrice a year (d) Four times a year
29. A hung parliament is a parliament
(a) Constituted for emergency purpose
(b) Where joint sessions of both the houses of the Parliament take place
(c) Which meets in between two regular sessions
(d) In which no political party gets an absolute majority
30. Parliament or a State Legislature in India can declare a seat vacant, if a member absents himself without notice from the session for more than
(a) 60 days (b) 120 days (c) 30 days (d) 90 days
31.
The ordinance issued by the Governor is subject to the approval by
(a) President (b) Central Government (c) State Legislature (d) Parliament
32. Who allocates portfolios among the Ministers?
(a) President (b) Prime Minister
(c) President on the recommendation of the Prune Minister (d) Chairperson of Ruling Political Party
33. The Constitution of India does not mention the post of
(a) The Deputy Speaker of the State Legislative Assembly (b) The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(c) The Deputy Prime Minister (d) The Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
34. A bill authorizing expenditure by the Government is called
(a) Finance Bill (b) Expenditure Bill (c) Money Bill (d) Appropriation Bill
35. The Government of India can sue, and be sued in the name of ‘Union of India’ under which article of Indian Constitution?
(a) Article 32 (b) Article 248 (c) Article 299 (d) Article 300
36. A member of the Indian Parliament or State Legislature cannot be arrested in a civil action within a period of
days before and after the session
(a) 40 (b) 45 (c) 50 (d) 55
37. Debates over issues of public interest are held during
(a) Discussion hour (b) Zero hour (c) Debate hour (d) Question hour
38. The duration of ‘Zero hour’ in Lok Sabha?
(a) Half-an-hour (b) One hour (c) 15 minutes (d) Not specified
39. Financial Emergency can be continued for
(a) 3 months (b) 6 months (c) No specified period (d) None of the above
40. Gram Nyayalaya Act 2008 aims at
(a) Access to justice to citizens at door steps (b) Free legal services to poor people
(c) Speedy Trial (d) All of the above
41. In the Indian Constitution, which type of the Sabha is mentioned under Panchayat Raj
(a) District Sabha (b) Gram Sabha (c) Nagar Panchayat Sabha (d) Zila Sabha
42. Under Constitutional Article 243, what is the meaning of Panchayat —
(a) Self Gram Panchayat Raj (b) Government of Village (c) Self Government (d) None of the above
43. Under Constitutional Article 243D, in Panchayat who gets reservation
(a) Scheduled Caste (b) Scheduled Tribes (c) a&b (d) None of the above
44. How many seats are reserved in all Panchayats at all levels for women
(a) One-third (b) One-fourth (c) One-half (d) Two-third
45. Which Constitutional Amendment introduced the Panchayati Raj and Nagar Palikas?
(a) 39th and 90th Amendment (b) 54th and 56th Amendment
(c) 45th and 46th Amendment (d) 73th and 74th Amendment
46. The minimum age for contesting the Panchayat election is
(a) 25 years (b) 21 years (c) 18 years (d) 30 years
47.
Which is considered as the ‘Blue Print’ of Indian Constitution?
(a) The preamble of the Constitution (b) Government of India Act, 1919
(c) Government of India Act, 1935 (d) The 42nd amendment of the Indian Constitution
48. Which article in the Indian Constitution is considered as the heart and soul of the Constitution?
(a) Article 21 (b) Article 14 (c) Article 15 (d) Article 32
49. The writ of prohibition can be issued against
(a) Judicial authority (b) Statutory authority (c) Quasi judicial authority (d) Both (a) & (c)
50. Which principle referers to ministerial accountability to the legislature?
(a) Collective Responsibility (b) Anti-Defection (c) Separation of Powers (d) Accountability
51. Clemency of Capital punishment is granted by
(a) Jail Superintendent (b) Chief Justice of S.C. (c) President of India (d) Indian Parliament
52. Which one is not related to sessions of Indian Lok Sabha?
(a) Budget Session (b) Monsoon Session (c) Winter session (d) Summer session
53. According to the constitution of India what is the maximum limit of Rajya Sabha Membership?
(a) 250 (b) 503 (c) 235 (d) 275
54. Which constitutional posts enjoyed a fixed term?
(a) Governor (b) Chief justice (c) Prime Minister (d) President
55. There is no provision, for the impeachment of
(a) The Chief Justice of India (b) The Chief Justice of the High court
(c) The Vice-President (d) The Governor
56. Joint sittings of the two houses of Parliament are presided over by the
(a) Chairman of Rajya Sabha (b) Speaker of Lok Sabha (c) Prime Minister (d) President of India
57. The members of State Public Service Commission are appointed and suspended by the
(a) Governor (b) President
(c) President and Governors respectively (d) Chief minister of concerned state
58. Can one person act as Governor of more than one state?
(a) No (b) Yes
(c) Only for a period of 6 months (d) Only for a period of 3 months
59. When is the Rajya Sabha dissolved?
(a) During President’s Rule (b) During Emergency (c) After every five year (d) Never
60. Term of the members of Rajya Sabha?
(a) 2 years (b) 4 years (c) 5 years (d) 6 years
61. The President of India administers oath of his office by
(a) Chief Justice of India (b) Prime Minister (c) Speaker of Lok Sabha (d) Attorney General of India
62. The salaries of the judges of the Supreme Court Of India.
(a) Can never be reduced under any circumstances
(b) Are fixed by the President of India
(c) Cannot be reduced during the term of their office except during a financial emergency
(d) Can be reduced during their term of office
63.
A judge of the Supreme Court can be removed from office only on grounds of
(a) Gross inefficiency (b) Proved misbehaviour or incapacity
(c) Senility (d) Imbecile conduct
64. The term of all Law Commissions, of Independent India is
(a) 5 years (b) 3 years (c) 2 years (d) 10 years
65. In India, the power of judicial review is restricted because
(a) The Legislature is supreme (b) The Executive is supreme
(c) The judges are transferable (d) The Constitution is Supreme
66. Which Article of the Indian Constitution empowers the Supreme Court to determine disputes between Union of India and its States and between States?
(a) Article 131 (b) Article 141 (c) Article 350 (d) Article 356
67. The number of High court in India is
(a) 24 (b) 18 (c) 21 (d) 28
68. Which of the following States does not have a High Court?
(a) Manipur (b) Meghalaya (c) Assam (d) Tripura
69. In which of the following cases the-Constitution of India allows an exception to the rule of equality?
(a) Deputy Prime Minister and Deputy Chief Minister (b) Union Law Minister and Law Minister of a State
(c) Prime Minister and. Chief Minister (d) President and Governor
70. Which of the following term means ‘under consideration of a court of law’?
(a) Double jeopardy (b) Sub judice (c) Res judicata (d) Sine qua non
71. ‘Autrefois Acquit’ principle is related to
(a) Double jeopardy (b) Retrospective operation (c) Export facto-law (d) Self-incrimination
72. Impeachment of Judges is provided under of Constitution
(a) Article 324 (2) (b) Article 134 (4) (c) Article 124 (4) (d) Article 32
73. Provisions relating to amendment of the Constitution of India are contained in
(a) Article 356 (b) Article 368 (c) Article 370 (d) Article 375
74. How many methods have been provided under the Constitution of India for its amendment?
(a) Two (b) Three (c) Four (d) Only one
75. Who was the president of India at the time of proclamation of Emergency in 1975?
(a) Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy(b) Zakir Hussain (c) V.V: Giri (d) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
76. A National emergency in India remains in operation, with the approval of Parliament for
(a) Maximum of 2 years (b) Indefinite period (c) Maximum of 3 years (d) Maximum of 1 year
77. The maximum duration for which an Emergency under Article 356 can be imposed is
(a) Six months (b) One year (c) Three years (d) No specified time limit
78. Kothari Commission Recommendations are related with
(a) Centre-State Relations (b) Educational Reference (c) Panchayat Raj System (d) Tax Reforms 90
79. Provincial autonomy was introduced in India under the
(a) Minto-Morley Reforms Act, 1909 (b) Act of 1991
(c) The Government of India Act, 1935 (d) The Act of 1909
80. Lengthiest Constitution in the world?
(a) American (b) Russian 91 (c) Canadian (d) Indian
81. How many official languages are mentioned in Schedule VIII to the Constitution of India?
(a) 18 (b) 22 (c) 14 (d) 28
82. The Advocate -General of the State is appointed by
(a) Chief Justice of concerned High court (b) Chief Minister of concerned State
(c) Law Secretary of concerned State (d) Governor of concerned State
83. The Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 was enacted under which of the following provisions of the constitution?
(a) Article 21 (b) Article 39 (c) Article 39 A (d) Article 43 A
84. International treaties are ratified in India by
(a) Parliament (b) President (c) Prime Minister (d) Foreign Sovereign in India
85. Which of the following’ posts is always held by a member of an opposition party?
(a) Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha (b) Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) Chairman of Public Accounts Committee (d) Chairman of Joint Select Committee
86. By which Constitutional Amendment the voting age was reduced from 21 to 18 years.
(a) 42nd Amendment of 1976 (b) 54th Amendment of 1986
(c) 7th Amendment of 1956 (d) 61st Amendment of 1988
87. Election Commission of India is a
(a) Political body (b) Constitutional body (c) Quasi-judicial body (d) Both (a) & (b)
88. The “Doctrine, of Rule of law” was propounded by
(a) John Austin (b) A.V. Dicey (c) Karl Marx (d) Bentham
89. Which Article of the Indian constitution lays down that “Union of India and the states are Juristic persons and can sue and be sued?
(a) Article 370 (b) Article 300 (c) Article 275 (d) Article 340
90. Who among the following ranks highest in the order of precedence as >per Indian Protocol?
(a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha (b) Governor of a state within his state
(c) Former President (d) Deputy Prime Minister
91. As on 2015, how many constitutional amendments have been made to the Indian constitution
(a) 98 (b) 99 (c) 100 (d) 109
92. Economic Survey in India is published officially every year by the
(a) Planning commission of India (b) Reserve Bank of India
(c) Ministry of Finance, Government of India (d) Union Cabinet
93. The Constitutional validity of Advocates Act, 1961 was upheld by the Supreme Court in
(a) Mahindroo V. Bar Council of Delhi (b) SC Advocates on Record Association V. Union of India
(c) Anand V. Bar Council of India (d) None of the above
94. Whether by a Writ of Quo Warranto, an illegal appointment of a Chief Minister can be challenged
(a) No (b) Yes (c) Discretion of Court (d) None of the above
95. Right to fly National Flag is
(a) Fundamental Duty (b) Fundamental Rights (c) A Directive Principle (d) Not a Fundamental Right
96. The Government of Inch may sue or be sued in the name of
(a) Union Cabinet of India (b) President of India (c) Prime Minister of India (d) Union of India
97. Delhi is made the National Capital Territory of India by -Virtue of which article of Indian Constitution?
(a) Article 241 (b) Article 239 (c) Article 239 A (d) Article 239 AA
98. A High Court Judge may be transfered from one High Court to any other High Court by
(a) President of India (b) Chief Justice of India (c) Governor of the State (d) Vice President of India
99. A Judge of Supreme Court and High Court shall be appointed by the Persident by
(a) An appointment Order (b) A Warrant (c) A Declaration (d) A Notification
100. Who led the 13 member constitution Bench in Keshavananda Bharati Case?
(a) Justice A.V. Roy (b) Justice Sikri (c) Justice Markandeya Katju (d) Justice Barucha
101. The Socialist Philosophy was brought into the Constitution through
(a) Fundamental Rights (b) Fundamental Duties (c) Directive Principles (d) All the above
102. A-member of Parliament shall lose his membership if he is continuously absent for a period of days from the session
(a) 30 (b) 45 (c) 60 (d) 90
103. The first country which made constitutional provisions for the protection and improvement of environment in its constitution
(a) USA (b) Britain (c) India (d) Canada
104. A matter of Urgent Public importance can be brought before legislature by
(a) Starred questions (b) No Confidence Motion (c) Adjournment Motion (d) Urgent Notice
105. Which of the following states in India has a separate Constitution?
(a) Goa (b) Jammu and Kashmir (c) Mizoram (d) Sikkim
106. How many schedules are there in the Constitution of India?
(a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 15 (d) 18
107. The term “Judicial Review” is mentioned in which article of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Article 226 (b) Article 32 (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Not mentioned in the Constitution
108. The Chairman of which committee is usually from the opposition?
(a) Estimate Committee (b) Public Undertaking Committee
(c) Public Accounts Committee (d) Rules Committee
109. The largest committee of the Indian Parliament?
(a) Public Accounts Committee (b) Etimates Committee
(c) Petitions Committee (d) Rules Committee
110. Before initiating an impeachment proceedings against a sitting Judge of High Court/Supreme Court, who has the authority to constitute a panal to examine the allegations leveled against such person
(a) Chief Justice of India (b) President of India
(c) Parliamentary committee headed by prime Minister (d) Chairman, Rajya Sabha
111. The power to declare a law as unconstitutional is vested to the
(a) Chief Justice of India (b) President (c) Supreme Court (d) High Court
112. In India, the power of Judicial Review is restricted because
(a) The Judges powers ate restricted (b) The Legislature is more powerful
(c) The Executive is supreme (d) The Constitution is supreme
113. The Governor of a State has no power to
(a) Summon the Assembly (b) Adjourn the Assembly (c) Dissolve the Assembly (d) Prorogue the Assembly
114. There is no provision in the constitution for the impeachment of
(a) The Cheif Justice of India (b) The Chief Justice of High Court
(c) The Vice- President (d) The Governor
115. In the, states with bi – Cameral legislature, the upper House is known as
(a) Council of states (b) Vidhan Sabha (c) Vidhan Parishad (d) Council of Representatives
116. Who among the following is called the ‘Key stone of arch’ in the Cabinet form of Government?
(a) President (b) Prime Minister (c) Constitution of India (d) Governor
117. Which Committee was appointed to review the working of Panchayati Raj institutions in India?
(a) Balwantrai Mehta Committee (b) Ashok Mehta Committe
(c) Mukherjee Committe (d) None of the above
118. The peculiar feature of Fundamental duties is that they do not have
(a) Political Sanction (b) Legal Sanction (c) Moral Sanction (d) All the above
119. Fundamental duties are included in the constitution by me recommendation of,
(a) Fazal Ali Committe (b) Swaram Singh Committee
(c) Ashok Mehta Committee (d) Balwantrai Mehta Committee
120. Legal aid for an accused is a
(a) Legal right (b) Fundamental right
(c) Discretionary power of Court (d) Directive principles of state-policy
121. Indian Republic is not the product of
(a) Political Revolution (b) Discussion
(c) Made by a body of eminent representative’s of the people (d) All the above
122. For the first time, British Parliament enacted which laws for the British Government to govern in India—
(a) Govt, of India Act 1857 (b) Govt, of India Act 1858 (c) Govt, of India Act 1891 (d) Govt, of India Act 1888
123. Under the British Rule in India Governor General was responsible to—
(a) Secretary of India (b) Secretary of Britain (c) Secretary of State (d) None of the above
124. Morely-Minto reform is associated with which Act
(a) Indian Council Act 1856 (b) Indian Council Act 1909
(c) Indian Council Act 1908 (d) Indian Council Act 1912
125. During the British rule, which community got separate representation from which Act—
(a) Christian Community & Indian Council Act 1909 (b) Buddhist Community & Indian Council Act 1907
(c) Muslim Community & Indian Council Act 1909 (d) All the above
126. During the British period, under which Act election was introduced in India
(a) Indian Council Act 1913 (b) Indian Council Act 1909 (c) Indian Council Act 1906 (d) Indian Council Act 1907
127. Montagu-Chelmsford report is associated with which Govt of India Act—
(a) Govt, of India Act 1918 (b) Govt, of India Act 1920 (c) Govt, of India Act 1930 (d) Govt, of India Act 1919
128. When was the Indian National Congress established—
(a) 1888 (b) 1885 (c) 1889 (d) 1890
129. Under the British Rule when ‘Dyarchy Governing System’ was introduced for the first time
(a) Govt. of India Act 1919 (b) Govt of India Act 1929 (c) Govt, of India Act 1925 (d) Govt, of India Act 1935
130. Under which Government of India Act, Federation and Provincial Autonomy were introduced in India
(a) Govt, of India Act 1935 (b) Govt, of India Act 1930
(c) Govt, of India Act 1940 (d) Govt, of India Act 1936
131. Which Act provided India to become an Independent state
(a) Indian Independence Act 1949 (b) Indian Independence Act 1946
(c) Indian Independence Act 1947 (d) None of the above
132. Under the Govt, of India Act 1935, the Indian Federation worked through which kind of list—
(a) Federal List (b) Provincial List (c) Concurrent List (d) All the above
133. Under the Govt. of India Act 1935, who had the power to proclaim emergency—
(a) Governor General (b) General of India (c) Governor of the State (d) None of the above
134. Which Constitution is in the written form for the first time by an elected body during the Modern period
(a) India (b) America (c) Britain (d) France
135. Who was the de facto Prime Minister at the time of evolution of the Constituent Assembly of India
(a) Moti Lal Nehru (b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (c) Jawahar Lal Nehru (d) H. N. Kunzru
136. Who boycotted the Constituent Assembly of India
(a) Unionist Muslim (b) Muslim League (c) Unionist Scheduled Caste (d) Krishak Poja
137. Which party said that Indian Constituent Assembly does not have a fully, representative character—
(a) Congress (b) Muslim League (c) Unionist Muslim (d) Unionist Scheduled Castes
138. Through which offer, the British Government authoritatively supported a Constituent Assembly for making the Indian Constitution.
(a) August offer (b) Viceroy offer (c) Sir Strafford Cripps offer(d) None of the above
139. Who supported the views of the Constituent Assembly for making the Indian Constitution
(a) Sardar Patel (b) Gandhiji (c) Jinnah (d) None of the above
140. When did Constituent Assembly adopt a national Flag
(a) 22nd Aug 1947 (b) 22nd July 1947 (c) 22nd Jan 1947 (d) 22nd Oct 1947
141. Who was the last British Governor General who addressed the Constituent Assembly
(a) Lord Attlee (b) Lord Mount Batten (c) Lord Bentick (d) None of the above
142. For how many years, months and days, did the Constituent Assembly work on the Constitution of India
(a)
2 Years, 11 months and 18 Days (b) 3 Years, 12 months and 16 Days
(c) 4 Years, 18 months and 6 Days (d) None of the above
143. Who presented the Objective Resolution in the Constituent Assembly
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Motilal Nehru (c) Sardar Ballabah Bhai Patel (d) None of the above
144. Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (b) K. M, Munshi (c) Jagjivan Ram (d) None of the above
145. How many readings were held on the Constitution in the Constituent Assembly
(a) First Reading (b) Third Reading (c) Second Reading (d) None of the above
146. Who said, T feel, however, good a Constitution may be, it is sure to turn out bad because those who are called to work it, taken to be a bad lot. ‘However bad a Constitution may be, it may turn out to be good if those who are called to work it, happens to be a good lot. The working of a Constitution does not depend wholly upon the nature of the Constitution
(a) Dr. Ambedkar (b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (c) Dr. Subhash Kashyap (d) None of the above
147. In the Parliament of India Upper House is known as
(a) Lok Sabha (b) Rajya Sabha (c) Council of States (d) None of the above.
148. In the Parliament, Lower House is called as
(a) Legislative Assembly (b) Legislative Council (c) Rajya Sabha (d) Lok Sabha (House of People)
149. When did the Constituent Assembly adopt National Anthem
(a) 25th Jan. 1950 (b) 26th Jan. 1950 (c) 24th Jan. 1950 (d) 29th Jan. 1950
150. Who among the following is the fourth pillar of Indian Constitution?
(a) Advocate General (b) Attorney General
(c) Comptroller and Auditor General (d) None of the above
151. Who among the following is the guardian of the Public Purse?
(a) President (b) Public Accounts Committee
(c) Parliament (d) Comptroller and Auditor General
152. Who among the following is known as the watchdog of public finance?
(a) Finance Commission (b) Reserve Bank Governor
(c) Finance Minister (d) Comptroller and Auditor General
153. Which law officer shall have the right to speak in both the Houses of Parliament
(a) Solicitor General (b) Advocate General (c) Attorney General (d) Legal Advisor
154. What was the name of India’s First Legislature
(a) Parliament (b) Union Parliament (c) Constituent Assembly (d) National Assembly
155. When did India become a fully Sovereign Democratic Republic
(a) 26th Nov. 1949 (b) 26th Nov. 1930 (c) 26th Jan. 1950 (d) 26th Nov. 1951
156. Who was the first Prime Minister of India at the time of Provisional Parliament
(a) Jawahar Lal Nehru (b) Lal Bahadur Shastri (c) Indira Gandhi (d) Rajiv Gandhi
157. Who was the Deputy Prime Minister of India at the time of Provisional Parliament—
(a) Jawahar Lal Nehru (b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(c) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad (d) Gulzarilal Nanda
158. Which occupation was represented more in the Provisional Parliament
(a) Agriculturists (b) Businessmen (c) Teachers/Academicians (d) Lawyers
159. Who was the chairman of the Rajya Sabha at the time of first Lok Sabha—
(a) N.C. Chatterjee (b) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan (c) A. K. Gopalan (d) Mahavir Tyagi
160. Who was the father of the Lok Sabha
(a) Hukam Singh (b) N. Sanjiva Readdy (c) G. S. Dhillon (d) G. V. Mavalankar
161. When did the origin and evolution of the office of Speaker start in India
(a) In Hindu period (b) In British Period (c) In Mughal period (d) None of the above
162. Which article of the Indian Constitution mentioned the posts of Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the House of People—
(a) Article 95 (b) Article 93 (c) Article 91 (d) Article 96
163. Who is the Head to transact the business of the Lok Sabha
(a) Prime Minister (b) Members of Lok Sabha (c) Speaker (d) President
164. In the absence of the Speaker who performs the duties of transacting the business in Lok Sabha
(a) Deputy Speaker (b) Prime Minister
(c) Members of Parliament (d) Parliamentary affairs Ministers
165. Under which Article of the Constitution, the Council of State (Rajya Sabha) has a Chairman and Deputy Chairman
(a) Article 109 (b) Article 108 (c) Article 89 (d) Article 91
166. How can member of Parliament resign from his seat
(a) By speaking in the House
(b) By an announcement in the Press
(c) By writing under his signature addressed to the Chairman or the Speaker
(d) All the above
167. Who fixes salaries and allowances for the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(a) Lok Sabha (b) Rajya Sabha (c) Members of the Parliament (d) Parliament by Law
168. Who said ‘As President, I have no eyes but constitutional eyes. I cannot see you
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (b) Dr. Radhakrishnan (c) Abraham Lincoln (d) Mahatma Gandhi
169. Which Prime Minister of India imposed President Rule for more number of times
(a) Jawahar Lal Nehru (b) Lal Bahadur Shastri (c) N. D. Deva Gowda (d) Indira Gandhi
170. Who nominates 12 members in the Council of State
(a) Chairman of Rajya Sabha (b) Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(c) president of India (d) Prime Minister of India
171. Members of, Rajya Sabha are elected by which members
(a) Lok Sabha (b) Legislative Assembly (c) Council of State (d) Legislative Council
172. Which House shall not be a subject for dissolution
(a) Lok Sabha (b) House of People (c) Council of State (d) State Legislature
173. What is, the period of Lok Sabha
(a) Four years (b) Six years (c) Five years (d) Three years
174. Under whose advice, the President shall have the power of summoning, prorogation and dissolution
(a) Home Minister (b) Prime Minister
(c) Council of Ministers (d) Parliamentary Affairs Ministers
175. Within which period the President has to summon session of the Parliament
(a) Six Months (b) Five Months (c) Four Months (d) Three Months
176. During the absence of the Chairman, who runs the Rajya Sabha?
(a) Deputy Chairman (b) Prime Minister (c) Home Minister (d) Parliamentary Affairs Minister
177. Lok Sabha has the supremacy in which matter
(a) Railway, Budget’ (b) Defence Budget (c) Foreign affairs (d) Financial Bill
178. Normally, what kind of session does the Parliament hold
(a) Budget session (b) Monsoon session (c) Winter session (d) All the above
179. Which session of the year, President addresses both the Houses of Parliament
(a) First session (Budget) (b) Second session (Monsoon)
(c) Third session (Winter) (d) None of the above
180. What is the meaning of the adjournment motion under Parliamentary procedure
(a) Member draws attention regarding important subject-matter
(b) Member wants the House’ to discuss is subject-matter
(c) Member wants to raise complicated issue
(d) Member wants to draw the attention of the House to way recent matter of urgent public importance having serious consequences
181. Which authority in the Parliament has the right to adjourn the House
(a) Speaker of Lok Sabha and Chairman of Rajya Sabha (b) President
(c) Parliamentary Affairs Minister (d) Prime Minister
182. In the Parliament^ every Bill has to pass through which stages of Reading before it becomes act
(a) First Reading (b) Second Reading (c) Third Reading (d) All the above
183. Which two houses, can have a joint sitting
(a) Legislative Assembly and Parliament (b) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(c) Council of State and Legislative Council (d) None of the above
184. In India, when does the financial year commence
(a) First April (b) Second April (c) First March (d) Fifteenth March
185. Who has the authority to call a joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament
(a) Prime Minister (b) President (c) Member of Lok Sabha (d) Member of Rajya Sabha
186. Who has the power to accord his assent or withhold his assent to a Bill passed by the parliament
(a) President (b) Member of the House (c) Minister (d) None of the above
187. What is the nature of India’s political system
(a) Presidential System (b) Parliamentary System (c) A&B (d) None of the above
188. Which Constitutional Article was very much affected in the Supreme Court Judgement of Kesavanand Bharti vs. State of Kerala
(a)Article 352 (b) Article 368 (c) Article 351 (d) Article 342
189. Which constitutional Organ has the power to amend Constitution of India
(a) Judiciary (b) Executive (c) Legislative (d) Parliament
190. Under which Constitutional Amendment Act, Article 368 of the Constitution was amended for the first time—
(a) 25th Amendment Act (b) 26th Amendment Act (c) 24th Amendment Act (d) 27th Amendment Act
191. Which Articles in the Indian Constitution represent emergency provisions—
(a) Article 348-354 (b) Article 352-360 (c) Article 359-361 (d) Article 368-380
192. Which constitutional article defines the provision in respect of financial emergency
(a) Article 348 (b) Article 351 (c) Article 360 (d) Article 362
193. Which constitutional article abolished the Privy Purses
(a) Article 374 (b) Article 392 (c) Article 363A (d) Article 364
194. Which Fundamental Rights Article is not in operation during the emergency
(a) Article 22 (b) Article 19 (c) Article 23 (d) Article 24
195. On whose satisfaction period of emergency shall be extended for operation in case security of India or any part of the Indian territory is threatened
(a) Prime Minister (b) Home Minister (c) President of India (d) Vice-President of India
196. Article 20 of the Fundamental Rights represents which subject
(a) Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment (b) Protection in respect of Conviction of Offence
(c) Protection of life and personal liberty (d) None of the above
197. Article 21 of the Fundamental Rights deals with which subject
(a) Protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech (b) Protection in respect of conviction of offence
(c) Protection ‘ against arrest and detention in certain cases (d) Protection of life and personal liberty
198. Who declares the financial emergency
(a) President (b) Prime Minister (c) Finance Minister (d) None of the above
199. After declaration of financial emergency by the President, what is the period of operation without approval by the Parliament
(a)Three Months (b) Four Months (c) Two Months (d) One Month
200. Within what period, the Parliament has to approve Financial emergency declared by the President
(a) Six Months (b) Two Months (c) Three Months (d) Four Months
201. In Financial Emergency, salaries and allowances of which groups get reduction
(a) Central Government Employees (b) Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts
(c) a & b (d) None of the above
202. Raj Pramukh represents whom under the Indian Constitution
(a) President (b) Governor (c) a&b (d) None of the above
203. Under the Indian Constitution, what is the concept behind the protection of President and Governors
(a) President & Governors are above the law
(b) President & Governors make any law for the Constitution
(c) President and Governors are answerable to Prime Minister
(d)
resident and Governors shall not be answerable to any court to the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of their office
204. What are the subjects for adjudication or trial by Administrative Tribunal
(a) Private sector employee recruitment disputes
(b) Decide on recruitment in Public sector
(c) Dispute and complaints with respect to recruitment and condition of service of persons appointed in the public services in connection with the officers of the Union or of any State or of any local or other Authority within the territory of India
(d) None of the above
205. Who appoints Chief Election Commissioner
(a) President (b) Prime Minister (c) Parliament (d) None of the above
206. Who decides allotment of symbols to Political Parties
(a) Political Party leader (b) Political Party Governing Committees
(c) Election Committee of Political Party (d) Election Commission
207. Through which procedure, a writ can be filed in the Supreme Court against decision of the Election Commission on recognising or de-recognising a political party for the purpose of an electoral symbol, or which group within a particular party, constitutes that party for been allotted of Election symbol to that party
(a) Under Article 32 (b) Under Article 229 (c) Special leave petition (d) Public Interest Litigation
208. Which Constitutional Article defines law declared by Supreme Court to be binding on all courts
(a) Article 142 (b) Article 141 (c) Article 143 (d) Article 144
209. Under which Constitutional Article, President has the power to consult Supreme Court
(a) Article 145 (b) Article 146 (c) Article 143 (d) Article 144
210. Which Constitutional Article defines, Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(a) Article 148 (b) Article 149 (c) Article 150 (d) Article 151
211. Chief Election Commissioner cannot be removed except by which process
(a) Resignation (b) presidential Order (c) Impeachment (d) Judicial Decision
212. Which Chief Election Commissioner appealed the Supreme Court that under Article 324, Election Commission as a multi member Election Commission is not valid
(a) K. B. Sundram (b) T. Swaminathan (c) H. S. Shakdhar (d) T. N. Seshan
213. Under the Indian Constitution, what does ‘Adult Suffrage’ signify
(a) Children (b) Persons
(c) Any Indian citizen who is of the age of 18 years and above (d) None of the above
214. Under Article 331, how many members of the Anglo-Indian Community can be nominated in Lok Sabha by the President
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 1
215. In which State a separate district has been reserved for Scheduled Tribes
(a) Assam (b) Andhra Pradesh (c) Karnataka (d) Kerala
216. Which Constitutional Article lays down the provision for a National Commission for SC and ST
(a) Article 337 (b) Article 334 (c) Article 338 (d) Article 339
217.
Which community gets special provision for Central Services in Article 336
(a) Sikh Community (b) Muslim Community (c) Hindu Community (d) Anglo-Indian Community
218. Which Constitutional Article empowers the State Legislature to adopt Hindi or any state language as the official language of that state
(a) Article 345 (b) Article 346 (c) Article 348 (d) Article 349
219. Which Constitutional Article defines the Panchayat Raj
(a) 243 O (b) 243 A (c) 243 (d) 243 I
220. The Constitution of India, was drafted and enacted in which language
(a) Hindi (b) English (c) Tamil (d) Telugu
221. Which Constitutional Article states ‘This Constitution may be called the Constitution of India’
(a) Article 397 (b) Article 396 (c) Article 395 (d) Article 394
222. After which report, President promulgates President Rule in the State
(a) Prime Minister (b) Union Home Minister (c) Chief Minister (d) Governor
223. Who has the Authority to approve President Rule in the state
(a) Parliament (b) Lok Sabha (c) State Legislature (d) Council of State
224. Who has the constitutional power not to approve ‘President Rule’ in the state under Article 356
(a) Prime Minister (b) Parliament (c) Union Council of (d) Ministers State Government
225. Which Constitutional Article lays down distribution of work through the Union List, State List, and Concurrent List between the Union and State
(a) 246 (b) 247 (c) 248 (d) 249
226. In the Union List, how many subjects are incorporated
(a) 95 (b) 92 (c) 100 (d) 99
227. In the State List, how many subjects are included
(a) 65 (b) 61 (c) 64 (d) 63
228. In the Concurrent list, how many subjects have been included
(a) 52 (b) 43 (c) 45 (d) 47
229. Constitutionally, who has the power to make a law on the subject mentionable in the Union List
(a) Lok Sabha (b) Parliament (c) Rajya Sabha (d) Legislative Council
230. Motion of no confidence against the Government can only be introduced in the
(a) Rajya Sabha (b) Lok Sabha (c) Legislative Council (d) Parliament
231. The first prime minister who resigned after no confidence motion.
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Indira Gandhi (c) Morarjee Desai (d) V. P. Singh
232. The confidence motion is presented by
(a) Prime minister (b) Council of Ministers (c) President (d) Speaker
233. The term of office of Vice President is
(a) 3 years (b) 6 years (c) 5 years (d) 4 years
234. If a money bill is sent to the Rajya Sabha after passed by the Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha shall return the bill within.
(a) 7 days (b) 6 months (c) 14 days (d) 3 months
235. Who decides the bill is a money bill or not?
(a) Vice President (b) President (c) Speaker (d) Finance Commission
236. A Rajya Sabha member enjoys the term of
(a) 5 years (b) 6, years (c) 4 years (d) 2 years
237. Which state has the largest membership in the Rajya sabha?
(a) Uttarpradesh (b) Rajasthan (c) Andhrapradesh (d) Gujarat
238. The ex-officio chairman of the ‘Rajyasabha?
(a) President (b) Deputy Chairman (c) Vice-President (d) Speaker
239. First state Govt, to be dismissed under Article 356 of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Kerala Government (b) Punjab Government (c) Bihar Government (d) Gujarat Government
240. The words ‘socialist’, ‘secular’ and ‘integrity’ were added to the Preamble by
(a) the 42nd Amendment Act (b) the 36th Amendment Act
(c) the 49th Amendment Act (d) Ist Amendment Act
241. Part IV of the Indian Constitution deals with:
(a) Directive Principles of State Policies (b) Citizenship
(c) Fundamental Rights (d) Fundamental Duties
242. Which part of the Indian Constitution is called as the ‘novel features of the Indian Constitution’.
(a) Fundamental Right (b) Fundamental Duties (c) Directive Principles (d) Articles
243. The Constitutional head of a State is?
(a) Chief Minister (b) Finance Minister (c) Governor (d) CJ of High Court
244. Oath of office to the governor is administered by
(a) Chief Minister (b) Chief Justice of High Court
(c) Speaker of Assembly (d) President
245. Who appoints the Advocate General?
(a) Attorney General (b) Chief Minister (c) Governor (d) Speaker
246. Who appoints the Governor of a State?
(a) Vice President (b) President (c) Prime Minister (d) Chief Minister
247. The Governor gives his resignation letter to
(a) Chief justice of Supreme Court (b) Chief justice of High Court
(c) President (d) Chief Justice
248. Which of the following parts of the Indian Constitution deals with Right to Property
(a) Part III (b) Part X (c) Part XII (d) Part I
249. The first woman President of India?
(a) Indira Gandhi (b) Prathibha Patil (c) Sushama Swaraj (d) Meera Kumar
250.
Who is the nominal head of the Parliamentary system in India?
(a) President (b) Prime Minister (c) Chief Minister (d) Defence Minister
251. Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner
(a) President (b) Prime Minister (c) Vice-President (d) C J I
252. The President can be removed from office by the process of
(a) Impeachment (b) Election (c) By the law (d) Referendum
253. The President may resign his office by writing under his hand addressed to the
(a) Election Commissioner (b) Speaker of Loksabha (c) Chief Justice of India (d) Vice President of India
254. Disputes regarding Presidential/Vice-Presidential election are decided by
(a) Supreme Court (b) High Court (c) Election Commission (d) Special Authority
255. The power of the President to keep a bill pending without any action is known
(a) Absolute veto (b) Pocket veto (c) Suspensive (d) Qualified veto
256. The head of the Republic of India is?
(a) Prime Minister (b) President (c) Vice-President (d) Defence Minister
257. The President can great pardon to a convicted person under which article.
(a) Article 161 (b) Article 52 (c) Article 72 (d) Article 61
258. First hour of every sitting in. Parliament is called
(a) Not mentioned (b) Zero hour (c) Question-hour (d) Recess
259. Starred question means?
(a) It requires an oral answer (b) It requires a written answer
(c) Giving notice less than ten days (d) Supplementary questions cannot follow
260. Unstarred question means
(a) It requires an Oral answer (b) It requires a written answer
(c) Giving notice less than ten days (d) Supplementary questions can follow
261. ‘The Annual Financial Statement’ is first introduced in
(a) Loksabha (b) Rajyasabha (c) Vidhan Parishad (d) Council of States
262. The Chairman and other members of the UPSC are appointed by
(a) President (b) Prime Minister (c) Union Cabinet (d) Election Commission
263. The tenure of finance commission?
(a) 3 years (b) 4 years (c) 5 years (d) 2 years
264. Who appoints the finance commission?
(a) Prime Minister (b) President (c) Vice-President (d) Finance Minister
265. How many fundamental rights are there in the Indian Constitution?
(a) 10 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 11
266. Which among the following writ is issued against judicial or quasi-judicial authorities
(a) Certiorari (b) Prohibition (c) Mandamus (d) Both a & b
267. The first Attorney General of India
(a) L.N. Sinha (b) Soli Sorabjee (c) Mukul Rohatgi (d) M.C. Setalvad
268. The second highest law officer of India
(a) Advocate General (b) Solicitor General (c) Chief Justice of Supreme Court (d) Attorney General
269. The highest law officer of a state
(a) Chief Justice of High Court (b) Advocate General (c) Ombudsman (d) Attorney General
270. The oldest written constitution world
(a) India (b) USA (c) UK (d) China
271. Largest democracy in the world
(a) USA (b) UK (c) India (d) Greece
272. The country which is known as the house of Direct Democracy
(a) India (b) Switzerland (c) U.K. (d) USA
273. The shortest written constitution in the world?
(a) China (b) India (c) UK (d) USA
274. 73rd amendment of Indian Constitutiori deals with:
(a) Planning Commission (b) State level administration (c) Panchayati Raj (d) Nagarapalika
275. Sixty fifth Amendment of Indian Constitution (1990) deals with:
(a) Delhi as the National Capital (b) National Commission for SCs and STs
(c) Retirement age of high Court Judge (d) Deleted the Right to property from fundamental right
276. 97th Constitutional Amendment Act 2011 which came into force on 12th January 2012, deals with
(a) Co-operative Societies (b) Women Reservation (c) Lokpal Bill (d) Right to Education
277. Which Amendment Act is known as the Mini constitution of India?
(a) 84th (b) 76th (c) 42nd d) 36th
278. The amendment act which provide for 3 tier system of Panchayati Raj in every state
(a) 73 rd (b) 90th (c) 84th (d) 72nd
279. Which amendment made the elementary education a fundamental right?
(a) 42nd (b) 86th (c) 46th (d) 84th
280. The minimum age required to become a Member of the Loksabha is
(a) 21 (b) 25 (c) 30 (d) 35
281. The minimum age required to become the President of India
(a) 30 (b) 35 (c) 40 (d) 25
282. The minimum age required to become member of Rajyasabha
(a) 25 (b) 30 (c) 35 (d) 21
283. Who acts as the Guardian of the privileges of Loksabha members?
(a) President (b) Speaker (c) Vice-President (d) Prime Minister
284.
Which schedule of the Constitution deals with the three Lists.
(a) IInd Schedule (b) Vth Schedule (c) VIIth Schedule (d) IXth Schedule
285. Who is the head of Indian Audit and Accounts Department?
(a) RBI Governor (b) CAG (c) Finance Minister (d) Finance Secretary
286. CAG can be removed by the President on same grounds and in the same manner as a/an is removed
(a) Election Commissioner (b) Attorney General (c) Chairman of UPSC (d) Judge of the Supreme Court
287. Who appoints Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(a) Vice President (b) President (c) Chief Justice of Supreme Court (d) Speaker
288. The time gap between the question hour and agenda is known as
(a) Question hour (b) Zero hour (c) Adjournment (d )Recess
289. The maximum period between two sessions of Parliament
(a) 1 months (b) 2 months (c) 6 months (d) 8 months
290. The last session of the existing Loksabha after a new Loksabha has been elected?
(a) Lame-Duck session (b) Question hour (c) Dissolution (d) None of these
291. The first state to make compulsory voting in Local Self Government.
(a) Haryana (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Gujarat (d) Maharashtra
292. The prime minister who faced maximum number of no confidence motions.
(a) Nehru (b) Morarji Desai (c) Indira Gandhi (d) V.P. Singh
293. The Vice-President who lost in the presidential election.
(a) Krishan Kant (b) B.D. Jatti (c) Gopal Swamp Pathak (d) Bhairon Singh Sekhawat
294. The youngest Vice-President of India
(a) V.V. Giri (b) B.D. Jatti (c) Zakir Hussain (d) GS. Pathak
295. The first woman Secretary General of Rajya Sabha
(a) Violet Alva (b) Najma Heptullah (c) Pratibha Patil (d) V.S. Rama Devi
296. Which state, came under the presidential rule in maximum number of times.
(a) Punjab (b) Manipur (c) Kerala (d) West Bengal
297. The first woman Governor of India.
(a) V.S. Ramadevi (b) Nandini Satpati (c) Sarojini Naidu (d) Ammu Dakshayani
298. The power of pocket veto for the first time exercised by the president
(a) R. Venkataraman (b) V.V. Giri (c) Zail Singh (d) Rajendraprasad
299. The President of India, who is known as ‘People’s President’.
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (b) Dr. Radhakrishnan (c) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam (d) Pratibha Patil
300. First Budget of Republic India was presented by?
(a) CD. Deshmukh (b) R.K. Shanmukham Chetty (c) John Mathai (d) Lai Bahadur Shastri
301. The chairman and members of the State Public Service Commission are appointed by
(a) President (b) Governor (c) Chief Minister (d) Legislative Council
302. The first woman Speaker of Loksabha
(a) Sumitra Mahajan (b) Meira Kumar (c) Rabi Ray (d) Sushama Swaraj
303. The popular national programme which has in built mechanism for social audit.
(a) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme
(b) Wambay project
(c) Valmiki Ambedkar Awas Yojana
(d) NRDP
304. Since 2014 the Government of India decided to observe Rashtriya Ekta Diwas on
(a) January 9 (b) October 31 (c) September 17 (d) December 25
Answer Key
| CONSTITUTIONAL LAW | |||||||||||||||||||
| 01 | 02 | 03 | 04 | 05 | 06 | 07 | 08 | 09 | 10 | 11 | 12 | 13 | 14 | 15 | 16 | 17 | 18 | 19 | 20 |
| B | A | A | D | C | C | C | B | B | D | C | C | C | B | D | D | B | D | D | B |
| 21 | 22 | 23 | 24 | 25 | 26 | 27 | 28 | 29 | 30 | 31 | 32 | 33 | 34 | 35 | 36 | 37 | 38 | 39 | 40 |
| C | C | B | B | A | C | B | B | D | A | C | A | C | D | D | A | B | D | A | A |
| 41 | 42 | 43 | 44 | 45 | 46 | 47 | 48 | 49 | 50 | 51 | 52 | 53 | 54 | 55 | 56 | 57 | 58 | 59 | 60 |
| B | C | C | C | D | B | C | D | D | A | C | D | A | D | D | B | A | B | D | D |
| 61 | 62 | 63 | 64 | 65 | 66 | 67 | 68 | 69 | 70 | 71 | 72 | 73 | 74 | 75 | 76 | 77 | 78 | 79 | 80 |
| A | C | B | B | D | A | A | C | D | B | A | C | B | A | D | B | C | B | C | D |
| 81 | 82 | 83 | 84 | 85 | 86 | 87 | 88 | 89 | 90 | 91 | 92 | 93 | 94 | 95 | 96 | 97 | 98 | 99 | 100 |
| B | D | C | A | C | D | C | B | B | C | C | C | A | B | B | D | D | A | B | B |
| 101 | 102 | 103 | 104 | 105 | 106 | 107 | 108 | 109 | 110 | 111 | 112 | 113 | 114 | 115 | 116 | 117 | 118 | 119 | 120 |
| C | C | C | C | B | B | D | C | B | D | C | D | B | D | C | B | B | B | B | B |
| 121 | 122 | 123 | 124 | 125 | 126 | 127 | 128 | 129 | 130 | 131 | 132 | 133 | 134 | 135 | 136 | 137 | 138 | 139 | 140 |
| A | B | C | B | C | B | D | B | B | A | C | D | A | B | C | B | B | A | B | B |
| 141 | 142 | 143 | 144 | 145 | 146 | 147 | 148 | 149 | 150 | 151 | 152 | 153 | 154 | 155 | 156 | 157 | 158 | 159 | 160 |
| B | A | A | A | B | A | B | D | C | C | D | D | C | C | C | A | B | D | B | D |
| 161 | 162 | 163 | 164 | 165 | 166 | 167 | 168 | 169 | 170 | 171 | 172 | 173 | 174 | 175 | 176 | 177 | 178 | 179 | 180 |
| B | B | C | A | C | C | D | C | D | C | B | C | C | C | A | A | D | D | A | D |
| 181 | 182 | 183 | 184 | 185 | 186 | 187 | 188 | 189 | 190 | 191 | 192 | 193 | 194 | 195 | 196 | 197 | 198 | 199 | 200 |
| A | D | B | A | B | A | B | B | D | C | B | C | C | B | C | B | D | A | C | B |
| 201 | 202 | 203 | 204 | 205 | 206 | 207 | 208 | 209 | 210 | 211 | 212 | 213 | 214 | 215 | 216 | 217 | 218 | 219 | 220 |
| C | C | D | C | A | D | C | A | C | A | C | D | C | C | A | C | D | A | C | B |
| 221 | 222 | 223 | 224 | 225 | 226 | 227 | 228 | 229 | 230 | 231 | 232 | 233 | 234 | 235 | 236 | 237 | 238 | 239 | 240 |
| B | D | A | B | A | C | B | A | B | B | D | A | C | C | C | B | A | C | A | A |
| 241 | 242 | 243 | 244 | 245 | 246 | 247 | 248 | 249 | 250 | 251 | 252 | 253 | 254 | 255 | 256 | 257 | 258 | 259 | 260 |
| A | C | C | B | C | B | C | C | B | A | A | A | D | A | B | B | C | C | A | B |
| 261 | 262 | 263 | 264 | 265 | 266 | 267 | 268 | 269 | 270 | 271 | 272 | 273 | 274 | 275 | 276 | 277 | 278 | 279 | 280 |
| A | A | C | B | B | D | D | B | B | B | C | B | D | C | B | A | C | A | B | B |
| 281 | 282 | 283 | 284 | 285 | 286 | 287 | 288 | 289 | 290 | 291 | 292 | 293 | 294 | 295 | 296 | 297 | 298 | 299 | 300 |
| B | B | B | C | B | D | B | B | C | A | C | C | D | B | D | B | C | C | C | B |
| 301 | 302 | 303 | 304 | ||||||||||||||||
| C | B | A | B | ||||||||||||||||
Calling all law aspirants!
Are you exhausted from constantly searching for study materials and question banks? Worry not!
With over 15,000 students already engaged, you definitely don't want to be left out.
Become a member of the most vibrant law aspirants community out there!
It’s FREE! Hurry!
Join our WhatsApp Groups (Click Here) and Telegram Channel (Click Here) today, and receive instant notifications.
