Legal Reasoning Questions for CLAT | QB Set 92 [Defection Law]

Topic: Defection Law and Disqualification of Legislators
India’s anti-defection law seeks to discourage elected representatives from changing political allegiance after entering a legislature. The principal rules are contained in the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution. They apply to members of Parliament and State legislatures and prescribe circumstances in which a legislator may lose membership of the House because of defection.
A legislator elected as the candidate of a political party may be disqualified in two important situations. First, disqualification may arise if the legislator voluntarily gives up membership of that political party. This does not necessarily require a formal resignation from the party. A legislator’s conduct may demonstrate that party membership has effectively been abandoned. Therefore, openly supporting a rival political formation or acting in a manner clearly indicating abandonment of the original party may, depending on the facts, amount to voluntarily giving up membership.
Second, a party legislator may be disqualified for voting or abstaining from voting in the House contrary to a direction issued by the political party or an authorised person, commonly called a party whip. Disqualification does not arise on this ground if the legislator obtained prior permission to depart from the direction. Even without prior permission, the party may condone the legislator’s action within 15 days after the vote or abstention.
Different rules apply to legislators who did not enter the House as party candidates. An independent member is liable to disqualification if, after being elected, the member joins a political party. A nominated member may join a political party within six months of taking the seat without attracting disqualification on that ground, but joining a party after the six-month period may lead to disqualification.
The law also recognises an exception involving a merger. Members are protected where their original political party merges with another political party and at least two-thirds of the members of the legislature party concerned agree to the merger. The earlier protection for a mere “split” by a smaller faction no longer exists.
Questions of disqualification are ordinarily decided by the Speaker or Chairman of the House. However, this authority is not completely beyond judicial scrutiny. Courts may review a decision on recognised grounds such as mala fides, perversity, breach of constitutional requirements or violation of natural justice. Disqualification is connected with the act that attracted the Tenth Schedule; delaying the Speaker’s eventual decision does not transform an otherwise prohibited act into a lawful one.
Questions
Question 1
Asha was elected to a State Legislative Assembly as a member of the Progressive Party. She never submitted a resignation from the party. Six months later, she publicly announced that she no longer supported its leadership, attended repeated strategy meetings of the rival Democratic Party and campaigned for its candidate in a by-election. A petition seeks her disqualification.
Which principle is most directly relevant?
(A) Disqualification can arise only after a legislator formally resigns from the political party.
(B) A legislator’s conduct may establish that she has voluntarily given up party membership even without a formal resignation.
(C) Political activity outside the Assembly can never be considered under the anti-defection law.
(D) A legislator can be disqualified only for violating a party whip inside the House.
Question 2
Raman, an MLA belonging to the National Reform Party, is directed by his party to vote in favour of a Bill. He votes against it without obtaining prior permission. Twelve days later, after considering his explanation, the party formally condones his vote. A disqualification petition is nevertheless filed solely on the ground that he violated the whip.
What is the most appropriate conclusion?
(A) Raman must be disqualified because prior permission is the only defence available.
(B) Raman must be disqualified because condonation is valid only before the vote takes place.
(C) Raman should not be disqualified on this ground because the party condoned his action within 15 days.
(D) Raman cannot ever be disqualified for voting against his party because legislators have an absolute right to vote independently.
Question 3
Consider the same facts as Question 2, except that the National Reform Party does not condone Raman’s conduct until 18 days after the vote.
How does this changed fact affect the result under the rule stated in the passage?
(A) The protection based on condonation is unavailable because condonation was not given within 15 days.
(B) The result remains unchanged because any later condonation permanently cures the violation.
(C) Raman is protected because the party eventually approved his conduct before the Speaker decided the petition.
(D) Raman is protected unless the party expelled him within 15 days.
Question 4
Assume that Parliament validly modifies the anti-defection rule so that violating a party whip can cause disqualification only when the direction concerns a confidence motion or a money bill.
After this modified rule comes into force, Meera, a party MLA, is directed to vote in favour of an ordinary environmental regulation Bill. Without permission, she votes against it, and the party refuses to condone her action.
Under the modified rule, which result is most appropriate?
(A) Meera must be disqualified because every violation of a valid party direction attracts disqualification.
(B) Meera must be disqualified because the party refused to condone her vote.
(C) Meera must be disqualified unless two-thirds of her legislature party supports her.
(D) Meera would not be disqualified merely for this vote because the Bill is neither a confidence motion nor a money bill.
Question 5
The People’s Alliance has 90 MLAs in a State Assembly. Its original political party decides to merge with another political party. Of its 90 MLAs, 62 agree to the merger and act in accordance with it. Disqualification petitions are filed against those 62 members solely because they accepted the merger.
Which conclusion best follows from the passage?
(A) The MLAs are protected only if all 90 members accept the merger.
(B) The MLAs may claim the merger exception because at least two-thirds of the legislature party agreed to the merger.
(C) They must be disqualified because the anti-defection law no longer recognises any group movement between parties.
(D) They are protected only if more than three-fourths of the legislature party supports the merger.
Question 6
Dev wins an Assembly election as an independent candidate. Two months after taking his seat, he formally joins the People’s Justice Party, arguing that nominated legislators are permitted to join political parties during the first six months after taking their seats.
Which is the strongest legal inference?
(A) Dev is protected because every non-party legislator receives a six-month period to join a political party.
(B) Dev is protected because joining a party does not amount to violating a whip.
(C) Dev may be disqualified because the six-month rule applies to nominated members, not independent members elected to the House.
(D) Dev cannot be disqualified unless he votes against the wishes of voters who elected him.
Answer Key
Question 1: B
Question 2: C
Question 3: A
Question 4: D
Question 5: B
Question 6: C
Detailed Explanations
Question 1 – Answer: B
Rule: A party legislator may be disqualified for voluntarily giving up membership of the political party. A formal resignation is not essential; abandonment of membership may be inferred from conduct.
Relevant Facts: Asha has not formally resigned, but she publicly rejects her party leadership, repeatedly participates in the rival party’s strategy meetings and campaigns for its candidate.
Application: The crucial issue is not whether she submitted a resignation letter but whether her conduct demonstrates abandonment of her original party. Her sustained association with a rival political formation could support such an inference.
Conclusion: Option B is correct.
Option A incorrectly treats formal resignation as indispensable. Options C and D artificially restrict the circumstances from which defection may be established.
Question 2 – Answer: C
Rule: Voting contrary to a party direction without prior permission may cause disqualification. However, the party may condone the action within 15 days of the vote or abstention.
Relevant Facts: Raman voted contrary to the direction without permission, but his party formally condoned the conduct on the twelfth day.
Application: Although the initial vote fell within the anti-defection rule, the passage expressly provides a 15-day opportunity for the party to condone such conduct. The condonation occurred within that period.
Conclusion: Option C is correct.
The absence of prior permission is therefore not necessarily fatal, making Options A and B incorrect.
Question 3 – Answer: A
Rule: Where there was no prior permission, the party’s condonation must occur within 15 days of the contrary vote or abstention.
Relevant Facts: Raman’s conduct was condoned only after 18 days.
Application: The specified 15-day period had already expired. The fact that the party later approved his conduct does not satisfy the particular exception described in the passage.
Conclusion: Option A is correct.
The Speaker’s eventual decision date does not extend the constitutional period for condonation.
Question 4 – Answer: D
Rule: Under the hypothetical modified rule, breach of a party direction attracts disqualification only when the direction concerns a confidence motion or money bill.
Relevant Facts: Meera violated a direction concerning an ordinary environmental regulation Bill.
Application: Although she deliberately violated the direction and received no condonation, the modified rule narrows the category of votes capable of attracting disqualification. Her vote falls outside those categories.
Conclusion: Option D is correct.
The question must be answered according to the modified rule given in the hypothetical.
Question 5 – Answer: B
Rule: The merger exception applies where the original political party merges with another party and at least two-thirds of the members of the legislature party concerned agree to the merger.
Relevant Facts: The legislature party contains 90 MLAs. Two-thirds of 90 is 60. Here, 62 MLAs have agreed to the merger.
Application: Since 62 exceeds the required threshold of 60, the numerical requirement for the merger protection is satisfied.
Conclusion: Option B is correct.
Unanimity or a three-fourths majority is not required. The former “split” protection is distinct from the present merger exception.
Question 6 – Answer: C
Rule: An independent legislator is liable to disqualification if the member joins a political party after election. The separate six-month relaxation applies to a nominated member.
Relevant Facts: Dev entered the Assembly after winning an election as an independent candidate. He later joined a political party.
Application: Dev cannot rely on a rule meant for nominated legislators. Because he was elected as an independent, joining a political party after the election attracts the relevant disqualification rule.
Conclusion: Option C is correct.
The distinction between an independent member and a nominated member is decisive.
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